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Originally Posted by MysticPhD
Wrong! They cannot inherit ANYTHING THAT WAS NOT AN ASSET!!! There is no generic precedent for awarding reparations to descendants who were not harmed UNLESS they are direct descendants with known assets due to them, i.e., wages or accounts. You are free to interpet it that way if you wish . . . but my assertion has always been there is no GENERIC precedent for awarding "non-inheritable damages", i.e. loss of liberty, bad treatment, servile status . . . whatever! ASSETS have always been inheritable . . . but a direct line of descent must be validated for them.
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Then why do you have any issue at all with the precedent I cited? What is it about the awarding of wages to the descendents of slaves that has you arguing so heatedly against me?
As I said, you changed your argument, as I evidenced.
You're also the one that introduced the need for a 'generic' fix to slavery and segregation, not me--so I fail to see why you're harping about using the term "generic" above. It was your assertion, not mine.
[quote]And they have been granted same with the Civil Rights Acts and Affirmative Action, etc. I had answered . . . but apparently you missed it or didn't wish to consider it. Affordable education as far as their abilities will carry them in whatever institutions (not just academic) their abilities will qualify them for . . . even if it requires government subsidy. Affordable healthcare, even if it requires government subsidy. Affordable housing, even if it requires government subsidy. In short, all kinds of help to help THEM raise their status and quality of life . . . but no handouts.[/quotes]
You mean--they shouldn't get handouts like the Japanese Americans did? Or the Native Americans did? They should just try to take part in the programs set up for poor people?
What if the descendents of slaves don't qualify for that aid?
Do they still deserve some form of reparations?
Or is it only if they're so impoverished?
Do we base the current financial the descendents are in as a measure of whether or not reparations should be paid? Or do we base our assessment of whether or not reparations should be paid based on what financial damages were inflicted because of federal wrong-doing?
Which is justice? If a rich man get's his car stolen, are we just to say "The thief probably needed it more than you did" and leave it at that?
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As a social scientist, it has more weight than JUST my opinion.
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I don't care if your President or the Pope, your opinion has less weight than fact and evidence.
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Actually, it is. The internees were actual vicitms of the abuse . . . not centuries removed so-called descendants based on racial identification only.
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Not quite centuries. And on the slavery issue, there has been little talk of awarding every black person money--it has almost always been about direct descendents. When discussion segregation, or adding that into the mix, that's when the idea of awarding the majority blacks reparations comes in.
I think you're confusing the arguments. I also think it's rather interesting that you ignored my: Every black American who's grandparents were U.S. citizens statement.
Why did you do that?
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Because they were NOT paid as generic "Jews"(not ALL Jews received reparations) . . . they had to establish specific lineage and entitlement to the ASSETS. Nothing you have presented thus far does that! There is no evidence or proof or precedent that refutes my opinion.
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Maybe you don't think so... but again, that's your opinion.
I would like to see some evidence and proof that
does support your opinion.
That would move the discussion a whole lot further, imho.