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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
Require no evidence? by who's standard and who's opinion?
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You are free to reject the truth the the premise
1+1=2 for lack of evidence.
If you do then others might consider you to be a
crank or a bozart, but that would be their problem
and not your problem, wouldn't it?
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
That can be said of anything. It's hyper-skepticism.
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Can what be said of anything?
It is in no way skeptical to suggest that you
be careful how to state your premises.
What is hyper-skeptical is to reject a premise on
the grounds that nothing can ever be proven,
as you do below.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
Prove Socrates was a man. He could have been a female,
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Substitute "human" for "man".
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
a God,
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Substitute "Bronze Medal" for "Socrates",
taking into account your own philosophical convictions.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
maybe he didn't exist at all.
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Substitute "Bronze Medal" for "Socrates",
taking into account your own philosophical convictions.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
Prove all men are mortal. It's statistically likely but not impossible. If someone was supernatural they might be immortal and you don't know that he wasn't supernatural. If his genetic material had the ability to continuously regenrate he may have been immortal (By that I mean, people die of 'age' because a specific gene in our body expends a small amount of protein to replicate and create new cells and eventually your cells run out of that protein and cannot replace old cells which leads to some sort of organ failure) Even this conclusion relies on assuming the premises are true and those premises cannot be proven and never can be proven.
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You are the one who is all tied up in knots
over the need for proof.
I am satisfied with the evidentiary record
for universal mortality among human beings.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
No it's the exactly same story, all premises must be assumed.
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You must assume them. I am free to rebut them.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
Wrong. The only premise that even mentions free will is 4 which states:
"Free will requires that your body move based on your will to at very least some degree."
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A conclusion need not be named in the premises
of a begged question. It may only be implied.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
So what about that statement do you not agree with?
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I agree with the statement.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
And I will say it again, my conclusion relies on my PREMISES being true and nothing more. The conclusion IS that physics are incompatible with free will and it's backed up by the premises.
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Let's look at premises 2-3-4-5:
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
2. Premise: Matter, in all combinations and forms, is subject entirely to the laws of physics.
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You assume in this premise that "subject entirely"
means "incompatible" with Free Will, but that
assumption is also your conclusion.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
3. Premise: The body is subject entirely to the laws of physics. (premises 1 and 2 combined)
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The repeated phrase "subject entirely" means the
same thing it does in premise (2) and so also
assumes your conclusion.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
4. Premise: Free will requires that your body move based on your will to at very least some degree.
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The phrase "move based on your will" is assumed
contradictory to the laws of physics.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
5. Premise: If the body is subject entirely to the laws of physics (premise 3) then motion that body makes can be only based on the laws of physics.
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The phrase "only based on" means the same
as "subject entirely to" and so also assumes
your conclusion.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
It does not need to be COMPLETELY understood,
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I said: "NOWHERE NEAR completely"...
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
unless that force involves BREAKING THE LAWS OF PHYSICS
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...in other words the state if scientific ignorance
on the subject of Free Will is now so total that
there is no way of knowing whether Free Will
contradicts Scientific Law, or if they coexist.
I have heard of one and one only neurological experiment
(involving electrode attachments and the rest of the nine
yards of such apparati) which purported to support determinism
in decision-making.
According to the evidence some electromagnetic impulses
were detected when one would expect them in the event
of predetermined decision.
I hope that science looks deeper here, even though
the one and only experiment I have heard of supports
your conclusion rather than mine.
I take comfort in the fact that it will take a lot more
experiments before Square One is reached.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
it does NOT obstruct my premises (which only deals with matter, the laws of physics and what our body/brain is made of) and also my conclusion.
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Your premises are hopelessly entangled with your conclusion.
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Originally Posted by Bronze Medal
Unless the atoms that make up your brain can display a property that DEFIES the laws of physics it does not matter.
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See above.
It is over.
Goodbye.