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Old 07-13-2007, 04:23 PM   #1 (permalink)
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law question

Hi,

I hope this is the right forum for this question

In the U.S. I understand we used to have a Law that prohibited all but individuals to participate in the political process (individuals = true democracy)
It was overturned and thus allowing special interests like religious groups and capitalists, unions, and non individual entitites, etc to participate.

Can someone tell me what was this law and when it was overturned ?

thanks much - I saw it mentioned in the documentary "Unprecedented" in the last extra features section.
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Old 07-13-2007, 04:31 PM   #2 (permalink)
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This has always been a "representative democracy" or a republic from day one. It was never a direct democracy.
I don't believe there was any law created or overturned that allowed special interest groups to do anything. They just DO because our government is full of corrupt people.

Where did you see this documentary and do you have a link for it?
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Old 07-13-2007, 04:37 PM   #3 (permalink)
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It's discussed in the special features section (last one)


Netflix Online Movie Rentals - Rent DVDs, Classic Films to DVD New Releases - Free Trial

Home ... Unprecedented: The 2000 Presidential Election
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Old 07-14-2007, 07:27 PM   #4 (permalink)
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There has never been any legislation banning the participation of any organization or group in the political process. There has been legislation defining a special interest group or lobbyist and placing restrictions on political contributions, considerations and political lobbying.
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Old 07-26-2007, 05:25 AM   #5 (permalink)
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Limited democracy under inalienable rights and laws. Such a concept is shredded in the direct democracy favored by such vile creatures as Allah Gored and Hilarious Clintonista, or Rudy Jewelthief and Newtonian Gillchrist.
The present USA is unsafe at any speed.
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